Yes,this is what i believe according to new testament's new commandements.SIN :-> is not wanting to believe the words,and the personne of the Lord and Glorious Savior, Jesus-Christ.
Therefore this is why i love to say with the Holy Spirit. He who practices SIN:-> is not wanting to believe the words,and the personne of the Lord and Glorious Savior, Jesus-Christ.
And as these commendable commentators say, like
F.F Bruce , C.H Macintoch , J.N Darby , William Kelly , F.B Hole , Howard Marshall, Hamilton Smith , G.Vernon McGee , A. Plummer , Dr. S. Lewis Johnson Jr. , William MacDonald / Arhur Farstad � A.M.S GOODING , L. M. Grant , Brian Bell , J. Ligon Duncan , Dr. Thomas Constable , D. Edmond Hiebert, W. Hall Harris III and John MacArthur.
- 1John 3:4.The author of 1 John is not referring to lawlessness as violation of the Mosaic law (as Paul does in Rom. 4:7)W.H Harris
-
It is not so much the transgression of the Law.
It's living as if there is no Law...and no law giver. J.MacArthur.
-
1Jn.3:4-�Everyone that practiseth sin practiseth also lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness� (Numerical Bible). The translation of the King James version is recognized by scholars to be wrong in this case...-L.M . Grant
-
C.H Mackintosh : The First Epistle of John. Submitted by William Lincoln on Wed, 09/05/2007 - 05:00
�Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law; for sin is the transgression of the law. There again is another very bad translation .
It should be��for sin is lawlessness.�
-
William Kelly :1 Jean 3:4.
"Whosoever doeth sin doeth also lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness?" This is a very different rendering from that of the A.V.; ...
Sin is not breach of law but lawlessness.
-This is the true sense. No other rendering is possible legitimately. What has ruled here is an utter mistake,founded on making the law instead of Christ the rule of life for the Christian, as people do who understand not the scriptures .
-
Pg.176,New International Commentary on the New testament- The Epistles of John,according to
-Howard Marchal. 1John 3:4.There are reasons to doubt that lawbreaking is to be understood here because the word �law� is completely absent.It is the same word as used in 2 Thess.3,7 speaking about the,
- man of lawlessness- which is referring to the one opposed to Christ and standing in opposition to Christ.
-
J.N Darby : 1st. Epistle of John,3:4
He who commits sin (not transgresses the law ), but acts lawlessly...
-
The writings of Hamilton Smith: The Epistles of John.-The apostles...states that, �Every one that practises sin practises also lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness� (N.Tn.).
Sin is not simply transgressing a known law, as the defective translation of the Authorised Version suggests. The principle of sin is lawlessness, or doing one's own will apart altogether from any law.
-
Finally so many say so ,its why so many has denied the right to Jesus that has USED the phrases�the practice of sin,iniquity and evilness)Ex.as in John 8:34 Math,7:23 and John 3:20.
The right for the Lord Jesus that has given his difinition of sin( John 16:9 AS IN jn.8:34 THRU THE WHOLE CONTEXT- OPPOSITION TO CHIST) tHE REGRETTABLE ERROR OF 1JN.3:4 as so many, many, many commentators say,Tells me that it has denied the Master's teaching of his usage of the word to who John was faithful to.Therefore a regrettable error has ruled,and error means falsehood.
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Therefore this is why i love to say with the Holy Spirit. He who practices SIN:-> is not wanting to believe the words,and the personne of the Lord and Glorious Savior, Jesus-Christ.
And as these commendable commentators say, like
F.F Bruce , C.H Macintoch , J.N Darby , William Kelly , F.B Hole , Howard Marshall, Hamilton Smith , G.Vernon McGee , A. Plummer , Dr. S. Lewis Johnson Jr. , William MacDonald / Arhur Farstad � A.M.S GOODING , L. M. Grant , Brian Bell , J. Ligon Duncan , Dr. Thomas Constable , D. Edmond Hiebert, W. Hall Harris III and John MacArthur.
-
1John 3:4.The author of 1 John is not referring to lawlessness as violation of the Mosaic law (as Paul does in Rom. 4:7)W.H Harris
-
It is not so much the transgression of the Law.
It's living as if there is no Law...and no law giver. J.MacArthur.
-
1Jn.3:4-�Everyone that practiseth sin practiseth also lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness� (Numerical Bible). The translation of the King James version is recognized by scholars to be wrong in this case...-L.M . Grant
-
C.H Mackintosh : The First Epistle of John. Submitted by William Lincoln on Wed, 09/05/2007 - 05:00
�Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law; for sin is the transgression of the law. There again is another very bad translation .
It should be��for sin is lawlessness.�
-
William Kelly :1 Jean 3:4.
"Whosoever doeth sin doeth also lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness?" This is a very different rendering from that of the A.V.; ...
Sin is not breach of law but lawlessness.
-This is the true sense. No other rendering is possible legitimately. What has ruled here is an utter mistake,founded on making the law instead of Christ the rule of life for the Christian, as people do who understand not the scriptures .
-
Pg.176,New International Commentary on the New testament- The Epistles of John,according to
-Howard Marchal.
1John 3:4.There are reasons to doubt that lawbreaking is to be understood here because the word �law� is completely absent.It is the same word as used in 2 Thess.3,7 speaking about the,
- man of lawlessness- which is referring to the one opposed to Christ and standing in opposition to Christ.
-
J.N Darby : 1st. Epistle of John,3:4
He who commits sin (not transgresses the law ), but acts lawlessly...
-
The writings of Hamilton Smith: The Epistles of John.-The apostles...states that, �Every one that practises sin practises also lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness� (N.Tn.).
Sin is not simply transgressing a known law, as the defective translation of the Authorised Version suggests. The principle of sin is lawlessness, or doing one's own will apart altogether from any law.
-
Finally so many say so ,its why so many has denied the right to Jesus that has USED the phrases�the practice of sin,iniquity and evilness)Ex.as in John 8:34 Math,7:23 and John 3:20.
The right for the Lord Jesus that has given his difinition of sin( John 16:9 AS IN jn.8:34 THRU THE WHOLE CONTEXT- OPPOSITION TO CHIST) tHE REGRETTABLE ERROR OF 1JN.3:4 as so many, many, many commentators say,Tells me that it has denied the Master's teaching of his usage of the word to who John was faithful to.Therefore a regrettable error has ruled,and error means falsehood.
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