Wesleys explanation of this verse is so lame it make me wonder how he got the job. The dead are dead but Wesley can not come to a point of conviction. This makes it bad for the King James crowd. It makes me wonder why he didn't hold back about his explanation of Ezekiel 18:4 or Psm 146:4. Could it be he is thinking that there is a part of the dead that sur survives?
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