concerning in the 1611 edition in this verse signified by the "spirit"
while in the 1769 is "Spirit"
is this a part of standardizing?
i believe with out a doubt this is the Spirit of God that did signify and guide them into all the truth( john 16:13)some in the old testament like zechariah 4:6 is no doubt that it is the Holy Spirit...which in those times the person of the Holy Spirit is silent.
This comment thread is locked. Please enter a new comment to start a new comment thread.
Enter new comment
while in the 1769 is "Spirit"
is this a part of standardizing?
i believe with out a doubt this is the Spirit of God that did signify and guide them into all the truth( john 16:13)some in the old testament like zechariah 4:6 is no doubt that it is the Holy Spirit...which in those times the person of the Holy Spirit is silent.
This comment thread is locked. Please enter a new comment below to start a new comment thread.
Note: Comment threads older than 2 months are automatically locked.
Do you have a Bible comment or question?
Please Sign In or Register to post comments...
Report Comment
Which best represents the problem with the comment?