Very difficult verse but remember, Paul repeatedly says that we are saved by grace through faith ( Eph 2:8-9) not of works. Also Rom 3:20 "Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin."
Do you think he forgot that principal that we are not saved by works when he wrote this verse? He cannot be saying that if we persevere in works for the rest of our lives, we will then and only then be eligible for eternal life!
No. I believe he is setting up an impossibility for the hypocritical Jews who were judging the gentiles. They thought they were saved by works. So Paul must be telling them that they must keep the whole law (continue in good works) therefore by THEIR own hypocritical beliefs in order to be saved.
Why else then would he conclude in Rom 3:20 that no one is justified by the works of the law if he saying here you will receive eternal life (be justified) by keeping the law?
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Do you think he forgot that principal that we are not saved by works when he wrote this verse? He cannot be saying that if we persevere in works for the rest of our lives, we will then and only then be eligible for eternal life!
No. I believe he is setting up an impossibility for the hypocritical Jews who were judging the gentiles. They thought they were saved by works. So Paul must be telling them that they must keep the whole law (continue in good works) therefore by THEIR own hypocritical beliefs in order to be saved.
Why else then would he conclude in Rom 3:20 that no one is justified by the works of the law if he saying here you will receive eternal life (be justified) by keeping the law?
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