At John 1:1 there are two occurrences of the Greek noun the‧os′ (god). The first occurrence refers to Almighty God, with whom the Word was (�and the Word [lo′gos] was with God [a form of the‧os′]�). This first the‧os′ is preceded by the word ton (the), a form of the Greek definite article that points to a distinct identity, in this case Almighty God (�and the Word was with [the] God�).
On the other hand, there is no article before the second the‧os′ at John 1:1. So a literal translation would read, �and god was the Word.� Yet we have seen that many translations render this second the‧os′ (a predicate noun) as �divine,� �godlike,� or �a god.� On what authority do they do this?
The Koine Greek language had a definite article (�the�), but it did not have an indefinite article (�a� or �an�). So when a predicate noun is not preceded by the definite article, it may be indefinite, depending on the context.
The Journal of Biblical Literature says that expressions �with an anarthrous [no article] predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning.� As the Journal notes, this indicates that the lo′gos can be likened to a god. It also says of John 1:1: �The qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the�noun [the‧os′] cannot be regarded as definite.�
So John 1:1 highlights the quality of the Word, that he was �divine,� �godlike,� �a god,� but not Almighty God. This harmonizes with the rest of the Bible, which shows that Jesus, here called �the Word� in his role as God�s Spokesman, was an obedient subordinate sent to earth by his Superior, Almighty God.
There are many other Bible verses in which almost all translators in other languages consistently insert the article �a� when translating Greek sentences with the same structure. For example, at Mark 6:49, when the disciples saw Jesus walking on water, the King James Version says: �They supposed it had been a spirit.� In the Koine Greek, there is no �a� before �spirit.� But almost all translations in other languages add an �a� in order to make the rendering fit the context. In the same way, since John 1:1 shows that the Word was with God, he could not be God but was �a god,� or �divine.�
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On the other hand, there is no article before the second the‧os′ at John 1:1. So a literal translation would read, �and god was the Word.� Yet we have seen that many translations render this second the‧os′ (a predicate noun) as �divine,� �godlike,� or �a god.� On what authority do they do this?
The Koine Greek language had a definite article (�the�), but it did not have an indefinite article (�a� or �an�). So when a predicate noun is not preceded by the definite article, it may be indefinite, depending on the context.
The Journal of Biblical Literature says that expressions �with an anarthrous [no article] predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning.� As the Journal notes, this indicates that the lo′gos can be likened to a god. It also says of John 1:1: �The qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the�noun [the‧os′] cannot be regarded as definite.�
So John 1:1 highlights the quality of the Word, that he was �divine,� �godlike,� �a god,� but not Almighty God. This harmonizes with the rest of the Bible, which shows that Jesus, here called �the Word� in his role as God�s Spokesman, was an obedient subordinate sent to earth by his Superior, Almighty God.
There are many other Bible verses in which almost all translators in other languages consistently insert the article �a� when translating Greek sentences with the same structure. For example, at Mark 6:49, when the disciples saw Jesus walking on water, the King James Version says: �They supposed it had been a spirit.� In the Koine Greek, there is no �a� before �spirit.� But almost all translations in other languages add an �a� in order to make the rendering fit the context. In the same way, since John 1:1 shows that the Word was with God, he could not be God but was �a god,� or �divine.�
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