our Savior our priest and the only mediator between us, and God was tempted as we are tempted, would not this temptation only be valid if he could succumb to temptation and was able to sin?
As you said,
I know we have discussed this in the past and yes we know each other stance on this.
However, let me share my understanding on this from what I have gathered and some from this very site.
When dealing with whether Christ could have sinned, the short answer is no He's God. I know we don't agree on that so no need for a debate there.
Now, one would ask "how could God (IN THE FLESH) be tempted? That's who Christ was here on earth. God in the flesh. 1 Timothy 3:16.
You referenced Hebrews 4:15. It reads "For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
This doesn't say Jesus was tempted to sin as if he had a sin nature inherited from Adam.
The word tested here is "peiraz" which is to test (objectively) that is endeavor, scrutinize entice discipline: - assay examine go about to prove.
Christ was tested while in the flesh and "can be touched with the feeling of our infirmities;
This doesn't mean he is fighting back the urge to sin! It means he's being enticed but yet his testing was to prove him.
You see an example of the word temptation being used this way in James 1:12. The word here is peirasmos. It means putting to proof (by experiment [of good] experience [of evil] solicitation discipline or provocation); by implication adversity: - temptation.
Also;
The mocking Christ on the cross was not a test. He was where he wanted to be and doing what he came to do.
They had no power over him and the nails didn't hold him to that cross, love did.
Part 1.
You stated; "We are told
our Savior our priest and the only mediator between us, and God was tempted as we are tempted, would not this temptation only be valid if he could succumb to temptation and was able to sin?
As you said,
I know we have discussed this in the past and yes we know each other stance on this.
However, let me share my understanding on this from what I have gathered and some from this very site.
When dealing with whether Christ could have sinned, the short answer is no He's God. I know we don't agree on that so no need for a debate there.
Now, one would ask "how could God (IN THE FLESH) be tempted? That's who Christ was here on earth. God in the flesh. 1 Timothy 3:16.
You referenced Hebrews 4:15. It reads "For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
This doesn't say Jesus was tempted to sin as if he had a sin nature inherited from Adam.
The word tested here is "peiraz" which is to test (objectively) that is endeavor, scrutinize entice discipline: - assay examine go about to prove.
Christ was tested while in the flesh and "can be touched with the feeling of our infirmities;
This doesn't mean he is fighting back the urge to sin! It means he's being enticed but yet his testing was to prove him.
You see an example of the word temptation being used this way in James 1:12. The word here is peirasmos. It means putting to proof (by experiment [of good] experience [of evil] solicitation discipline or provocation); by implication adversity: - temptation.
Also;
The mocking Christ on the cross was not a test. He was where he wanted to be and doing what he came to do.
They had no power over him and the nails didn't hold him to that cross, love did.
He could have come down any time he wanted to.
He was in control, not them! John 19:9-11.
See Part 2.
The tempting of Satan.
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