Italicized words were words put in by the translators of the King James Bible. So sometimes when you translate something from one language, there is not a perfect translation, but rather a phrase. For example: "Consuegro" in Spanish translates to "your son or daughter's parent-in-law" in English. In this example they are referring to the parent-in-law, so the child's name would be italicized. It was just the way they had to translate for it to make sense or else we would have some weird verses. For example Isaiah 57:19 would say, "I create the fruit of the lips; Peace, peace to far off, and to near, saith the LORD; and will heal him." we know the context is talking about a "him," so they added the italicized words to help it make sense.
As far as the apocrypha goes, I do not believe it is equally inspired as scripture. Titus 1:2 says that God cannot lie. There are parts of the apocrypha that go against what the canonical KJV says which in turn make that part of the apocrypha false. In the translating of the KJV, the translators had many copies of the same scripture that said the same thing. Any that said something different were looked at and decided upon. If 9 out of 10 said one thing, they would ignore the 1. It makes sense as that would have been a misprinted or wrongly copied scroll of scripture. They were objective as possible as they translated. The apocrypha were all translated the same way, they were separate books so they did not compare them to the other books during translation. Later, they decided that they would not be accepted as they contradicted the other scriptures. If God cannot lie, then His word cannot lie. 2 Peter 1:21 tells us that God gave the writers what to write. meaning it was inspired. So since those books contradicted the others, they are clearly not of God.
You will not get many answers because not many belong to churches which read the Apocrypha. Churches such as the Eastern Orthodox Churches consider the Apocrypha as "not God inspired but beneficial for reading". They don't call those books Apocrypha (grk for not known, secret) but Deuterocanonical (grk for second order canonical). They use the name Apocrypha for books that have been rejected by both Hebrews and christians.The R/Catholics accept some books less than the Orthodoxes. There are some protestant churches as well that read those, but I don't know what they consider of them.
As far as the apocrypha goes, I do not believe it is equally inspired as scripture. Titus 1:2 says that God cannot lie. There are parts of the apocrypha that go against what the canonical KJV says which in turn make that part of the apocrypha false. In the translating of the KJV, the translators had many copies of the same scripture that said the same thing. Any that said something different were looked at and decided upon. If 9 out of 10 said one thing, they would ignore the 1. It makes sense as that would have been a misprinted or wrongly copied scroll of scripture. They were objective as possible as they translated. The apocrypha were all translated the same way, they were separate books so they did not compare them to the other books during translation. Later, they decided that they would not be accepted as they contradicted the other scriptures. If God cannot lie, then His word cannot lie. 2 Peter 1:21 tells us that God gave the writers what to write. meaning it was inspired. So since those books contradicted the others, they are clearly not of God.
You will not get many answers because not many belong to churches which read the Apocrypha. Churches such as the Eastern Orthodox Churches consider the Apocrypha as "not God inspired but beneficial for reading". They don't call those books Apocrypha (grk for not known, secret) but Deuterocanonical (grk for second order canonical). They use the name Apocrypha for books that have been rejected by both Hebrews and christians.The R/Catholics accept some books less than the Orthodoxes. There are some protestant churches as well that read those, but I don't know what they consider of them.
GBU
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