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  • S
    Salem and emma on Matthew 20 - 2 years ago
    In verse 18-19 Jesus speaks about himself in third person. Why?
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  • T
    T. Levis - In Reply on Matthew 20 - 2 years ago
    It may be for multiple reasons, knowing 2Timothy 3:16,

    Interestingly if it were written 1st person as "I" it could have caused much confusion especially when quoted. GOD's wisdom always amazing!

    Also to clarify who, to point to His human side fulfilling prophecy, son of man, son of David: Psalms 8:4, Matthew 16:28, = 2Samuel 7:16,17, Jeremiah 33:17,18,

    Ezekiel 2:1,3, Ezekiel 37:12,13, = Matthew 27:50-53,

    Just like when he cried out: Matthew 27:46 = Psalms 22, was he pointing those who knew scripture, to the very prophecy? I believe He was.

    Also, To show He was like us, flesh & tempted, suffered yet without sin: Hebrews 4:14,15,16, 1John 4:2,

    Hopefully these are helpful
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