Bible Discussion Thread

Can anyone explain to me, preferably referencing other Bible passages, why is it that in the second day God did not see it and it was good? Thank you!

Never noticed that. Guess nobody knows.

Strange question. I at best will give my best guess; since I have never heard it discussed before. The thought that comes to mind is that eventually; that expanse above was likely to be used as a judgment in the time of Noah; when the waters above (i.e. canopy before rain fell on the earth and a mist covered the ground) as well as those above would consume the earth. Some believe in a "gap" theory in between Gen. 1:1 and 2 when the earth was "without form and void" and also apparently mentioned in Zechariah which was an earlier flood that destroyed Lucifer and other spirit beings kingdom which he had established after being cast out of heaven when he and his angels fell with him. Therefore; it would be a sort of intermediate period when the "die was cast" so to speak; and also likely when Satan used fallen angels to corrupt the offspring of Adam so that only Noah was "perfect in his generations"; hence once again bringing a worldwide flood. That flood would bring 8 survivors; the first one if spiritual beings merely destroyed their first attempt at "filling the city with violence through trade" as Isaiah 14 and Ezekiel 28 seem to indicate was Lucifer's pastime.

That's my best guess. Agape. Rich P

Genesis 1:31,

Genesis 1:7, could it be that because HE hadn't made the "lights in the Firmament" yet? Genesis 1:15-18, that it doesn't mention seeing it until Genesis 1:31. Could it also be because the firmament wasn't completed yet, & possibly rather empty?

Psalms 19:1, Daniel 12:3,

Hopefully this is helpful