In the kjv 1611 what are if any are grounds for divorce if one if the two is claiming the other is lost when they say they are not we see in Matthew 19:9 - And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery
I'm not sure that I understand your question correctly, but I shall make some comments. I don't believe that when a marriage takes place that there should be any grounds for divorce; separation maybe, because of hatred, ill-treatment, abuse, etc., but the couple either stay apart or come back together. In the Matthew reference you gave, the Pharisees confronted Jesus about Moses granting a "writing of divorcement", therefore divorce should be lawful they figured. But Jesus said that Moses made a concession (whether rightly or wrongly), because of Israel's hardness of heart (i.e. their refusal to obey him & persisted in their desire). But divorce was never a part of God's Plan.
So, whatever happened in Moses' day, Jesus now says, "And I say unto you". And Jesus then tells them in verse 9, that any divorce & remarriage leads to adultery to one or both parties. Jesus does however tell them that divorce is permittable if fornication has taken place. Now this is where there are other opinions on the matter. It's my sense, that the fornication spoken of here, is when the wife had been sexually active prior to her marriage, & after her marriage, she has been found out. I figure that if a wife has been unfaithful in the marriage, then it would no longer be considered fornication, but adultery. Some may disagree with that view.
If we look at Matthew 1:18-20, Joseph found himself in a similar predicament. Mary was found with child when she was espoused (engaged) to Joseph. Joseph of course, thought the worst of her & was minded to terminate that engagement. But as you know, the angel of the Lord appeared to him to assure him that this babe in Mary was from the Holy Spirit. If this was any other relationship & pregnancy, Joseph would have been justified to divorce her (even in the engagement period) & still be free to marry another. So, I don't know whether this answers your question, but you may get other viewpoints to consider.
So, whatever happened in Moses' day, Jesus now says, "And I say unto you". And Jesus then tells them in verse 9, that any divorce & remarriage leads to adultery to one or both parties. Jesus does however tell them that divorce is permittable if fornication has taken place. Now this is where there are other opinions on the matter. It's my sense, that the fornication spoken of here, is when the wife had been sexually active prior to her marriage, & after her marriage, she has been found out. I figure that if a wife has been unfaithful in the marriage, then it would no longer be considered fornication, but adultery. Some may disagree with that view.
If we look at Matthew 1:18-20, Joseph found himself in a similar predicament. Mary was found with child when she was espoused (engaged) to Joseph. Joseph of course, thought the worst of her & was minded to terminate that engagement. But as you know, the angel of the Lord appeared to him to assure him that this babe in Mary was from the Holy Spirit. If this was any other relationship & pregnancy, Joseph would have been justified to divorce her (even in the engagement period) & still be free to marry another. So, I don't know whether this answers your question, but you may get other viewpoints to consider.
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