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    Douglas Collins on Job 17 - 3 years ago
    To whom it may concern,

    Why does the KJV translate the last half of Job 17:6 in the past tense, but, other translations in the present?

    If you use the past tense, then, Job is referring to how the people previously viewed and treated him.

    If you use the present tense, then, it seems that Job is referring to how they treat him now.

    Which is correct?

    Thank you.
    "Amen!"   Report



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