One of the strengths of the KJV is the identification of the Greek verb tenses by the the use of the "est" and "eth" suffixes. That said, I have never seen them explained anywhere. I understand that one is the continuous present tense and the other the immediate present tense but which is which I am not certain about. Can anyone clarify?
The suffixes are also used in the OT but I am sure whether on not the different tenses exist in the original Hebrew.
The suffixes are also used in the OT but I am sure whether on not the different tenses exist in the original Hebrew.
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