The Bible does not specifically mention the word abortion. However, if we look at Exodus 21:22-25, it looks to me that God's view is that if you kill an unborn baby, the penalty is death.
A baby in a mothers womb is a living being. Aborting that baby is considered murder. It baffles me that people who commit murder, in many cases, they receive the death penalty. But what about murdering an unborn child?
This topic should touch the heart strings of every believer. Again, the closest thing I see that would give God's view on abortion (other than you shall not murder) in Exodus 20:13, would be Exodus 21:22-25.
Other verses to consider are: Deuteronomy 5:17, Matthew 5:21, Leviticus 24:17, Mark 10:19, Leviticus 24:21.
Hello Kathlynn. I don't understand your belief/understanding of 'Elohim' that you shared, as I don't find that in the Bible, but I can say this: that the word 'Elohim' (from the Hebrew), has several meanings. And those meanings/applications can be to the True God (as in Genesis 1:1), or to gods in general (as in Judges 10:6), even to judges (in Exodus 21:6).
Elohim then, is the general name for God and is used in the context of God as Creator. The Name emphasizes that God is distant and powerful. It is used to describe God as the awesome and majestic Creator.
However, when God's Name is given as 'Yahweh' (the LORD), this is His personal Name and is used in the context of God having a relationship with His people. When God goes about creating humanity ( Genesis 2:7 ff; cf with Genesis 1:27, spoken of in a more general way), it is Yahweh who does this act. When the Lord is personally involved with His people, Yahweh is the proper way to designate Him.
Hi Gizzmoo. When we see the word 'God', in Hebrew it is 'Elohim'. And this is a non-specific word, which applies generally to God ( Genesis 1:1), gods ( Genesis 35:2) & judges ( Exodus 21:6). But when the word 'LORD' is written, then it becomes a specific word, meaning 'Yahweh' (the Self-existent, Eternal God); and this is His Name, as was revealed to Moses ( Exodus 3:13-15).
When we see God's Name expressed differently (as well as several other names of God that reflect God's Person & Work), we can understand that the author of the Book, by the inspiration of God's Spirit, has chosen to name the God of Heaven (Elohim) and/or the God Who is the unchangeable & eternal One (Yahweh). Either way, it leaves us no doubt Who God is that the Bible speaks of & when 'elohim' is used in its other applications, we should understand those meanings as well & not confuse them with the True God.
As far as your second question, do you mean that as it is written, God "breathed into his (Adam's) nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul" ( Genesis 2:7) but it is not written the same about animals, therefore where did they get the ability to breathe ( Genesis 1:20-25)? I suppose, the same could be said about the description of man & woman's creation in that chapter ( Genesis 1:26,27), that here also it hasn't been written that they received breath. So, I would say that it is understood that all living creatures did begin to breathe (whether sea, land or air animals), even as a greater description of man's creation is given in chapter 2 of him getting the 'Breath of God'.
Fierce opposition may be something in this country that we are not normally accustomed to but one has to ask why in light of 2 Timothy 3:12-17; John 15:18-21; 2 Corinthians 11:26 etc.
Perhaps I made this statement earlier in the Psalms discussion; but we need to distinguish between unconditional love and the fact that "enemies" still exist. Romans 5:10 and apparently 29 other verses show that indeed we all are enemies of God prior to our conversion; hence all unregenerate remain in that state.
There is something to be said for the O.T. times when the mindset was more "an eye for an eye"( Exodus 21:24). In terms of today; Christ demonstrated no personal condemnation for a particular individual; but He certainly spent chapters excoriating the Pharisees and others which caused multiple attempts at His life along the constant persecution.
Again as I stated in other Psalms regarding David's multiple hiding periods from Saul he showed respect for him by preserving his life multiple times when he could have ended it; and also he mourned over his death when the Lord finally made Saul reap what he sowed. When someone tries to kill you 21 times as Saul was said to do (not to mention other enemies of his); then we can understand a desire to see justice. Christ alluded to judgment with unbelief among the places that had seen mighty works such as Matthew 11:21 (the "woe to you" term was also used with the Pharisees).
Individual judgment to come or the fate of nations is not something we should gloss over. We as watchmen are responsible to sound the alarm ( Isaiah 52:8 and other verses in Jeremiah; etc). In evangelism warning of a national fate seems to be generally disregarded as opposed to warning individuals as to the wrath to come. I can't see studying how Christ preached that it can be ignored. We can study scripture and history to see how Isaiah and Jeremiah for instance were martyred for such messages.
That's a big topic Jewelgh & hope you get other answers. I would first make a distinction between slavery & the slave trade. Slavery was acceptable in the Bible but trading in slaves was not ( Exodus 21:16): & punishable with death.
1. Slavery was normal amongst the Hebrews because some people needed to survive because of their circumstances. Slaves could be taken from their own people or from outsiders. Hebrews could become slaves because of committing crime ( Exodus 22:3); having a debt they couldn't pay ( Leviticus 25:39,40), but treated as a hired servant; or a father's right to sell their children to pay off money borrowed for taxes ( Nehemiah 5:4,5). Foreigners could become slaves: either they were prisoners of war or purchased from their owners ( Leviticus 25:44,45).
2. Slavery was fine because God had permitted it to happen ( Exodus 21:1-11), but under strict conditions (as shown in Leviticus chap 25). To note, that Hebrew slaves were to be treated kindly as one would a hired servant & not a slave ( Leviticus 25:39-43). What we know as slavery today (whether from the past or even happening now in some parts of the world), is both wrong & cruel, when they are treated like animals. So slavery then amongst the Hebrews, could be better understood as bondservants, as 'slavery' gives us a wrong connotation.
3. The Hebrew word for slave or bondservant is 'ebed'. So, the meaning is the same, but how they were treated was important. In the NT, we can take 1 Corinthians 7:21,22 as an example. The word 'servant' is used thrice in these verses: as a servant to man & as a servant to the Lord. In both instances, the Greek word is 'doulos', where both slave, servant, bondservant can be used. This denotes the dedicated duty to service rather than bonded into agonizing slavery.
4. As mentioned, 'slavery' has an evil connotation today & could never be a good thing when practised by ungodly men. But it can be a state of happy servitude where kindness & freedom is given.
This chapter starts out "Now these are the judgments which you shall set before them.." and goes on to list many scenarios where a judgment from a judge or magistrate may need to make decisions for the parties involved. These judgments were for the Israelites in that time period as they were being grown into a nation. It seems that God was setting down a civil judicial system concerning matters that would emerge or had emerged among the people. This chapter makes me think of when Moses tried to adjudicate matters among the people on his own and Jethro suggested that Moses set up adjudicators from the tribes to settle most matters, leaving Moses to attend to meeting with the LORD and leading the people as a whole.
God knew ahead of time that there would be a need for such judgments concerning the civil affairs of these chosen people. He must have wanted to establish His way of settling matters, disputes, and offences among the people before they encountered people from the surrounding areas and began to adopt these "foreigner's" civil laws. Very likely that these foreign tribes had judgments that were unjust and inhumane. God is interjecting a better way of civil jurisprudence for the Israelites to help preserve justice and order in these people and to markedly distinguish His chosen nation from those the Israelites will encounter and share territory with.
Although to some of us in our time would read these judgments and scratch our heads as to whether they are truly just or not. But for me, I will not question God's holy justice. I will just accept that He instructed the Israelites according to His good an perfect will. So, perhaps the lesson for me is not to necessarily understand these judgments or the scenarios that prompt the judgments or the culture of these days. Rather, the lesson to me is, do I truly believe these are God's Words and are therefore true and right and will I defend God's right to judge as He pleases despite these words.
which is the correct translation for exodus 21:2 - "If thou buy an Hebrew servant, six years he shall serve: and in the seventh he shall go out free for nothing." is it servant or slave? some translations say slave while KJV and some others say servant.
Hello, no it doesn't. Slavery was a world problem and still is today. Today slaves- sometimes children- are even allowed to be trafficked into the US and the administration actually removed part of the border wall to make this easier for criminals to enter.
Some assume the Bible condones it because it has verses addressing slaves to be respectful of others. Colossians 4:1. This applies to everyone of course.
There is another angle on this: in the Bible days some voluntarily became "slaves" in order to pay off debt. Voluntarily doing work is closer to a job than slavery in my opinion, but I believe some call it that. If its 100% against someone's will then I think its slavery, but if someone voluntarily chooses something even if they perceive to not have many choices, then it it's a job. Some worked years for men in order to gain rights to marry a man's daughter, for instance.
This verse suggests that is someone is caught trafficking slaves to put them to death: Exodus 21:16. Other Bible verses like love your neighbor as yourself refute the myth that the Bible supports slavery. The message of Christianity is freedom, not slavery. The truth is true, regardless of what the evil world claims or thinks. Some will prefer the lie, because its more attractive to them. Lots of myths would be cleared up if people just read through the Bible.
Hello Gitai. That's a good question, as these differences in the use of God (as a Name), can be found right through the Scriptures.
In the references you gave, we can understand & know the meaning of the various names given. In Genesis chapter 1, the author refers to God as 'God' (or, Elohim). Elohim, is a general name for the True God, as it can also be used to depict other gods (e.g. Genesis 31:30; Exodus 12:12), of angels ( Psalm 8:5), of men ( Psalm 82:6), of judges/rulers ( Exodus 21:6)). So, in relation to God's creative Work, the Name Elohim was given here. And of course, Elohim is also used of the True God elsewhere in the Bible, where creating is not signified (e.g. Genesis 35:7).
But in Genesis chapter 2 we see the use of the word, LORD (or, Yahweh), & this signifies a special revelation & a special relationship to Israel: 'Yahweh' means the active, self-existent One (as in Exodus 3:14, where the word is connected to the verb, 'to be') & also being Israel's Redeemer ( Exodus 6:6). So the use of the word, LORD, signifies this True God (Elohim) is not distant (as seen by His other Works), but is now revealed in a most personal way to Israel as LORD (Yahweh); hence combining the two words to read, LORD God. And from Genesis 2:2 onwards, this Name is used to signify the commencement of a personal interaction with His creation.
And when we read the word, 'Lord', this means 'master, lord, sovereign' (as in Genesis 15:2). Hence we can have a variety of combinations: God, LORD God, Lord God, each one depicting what the author has received from God that has to be revealed to the reader (chiefly, Israel in the OT references). And of interest, this God Who is a personal God, is also experienced in many ways in that relationship. Hence, we get compound Names of Yahweh, such Yahweh-Jireh (the God Who will see to it; or provides); Yahweh-Shalom (the God Who gives peace); & many other compound Names.
Sister GiGi. I understand that you wisely don't wish to pursue with this thread, but I offer the following for understanding what is seen in the verses Earl has presented.
Psalm 82:6, the verse which Jesus quotes to the Jewish leaders, refers to "gods" as 'Elohim'. This is a word that has several meanings, as it applies to both the true God & to other applications of that word. Elohim is a generic word, used for God ( Genesis 1:1); for pagan gods ( Genesis 31:30, Exodus 12:12); for angels ( Psalm 8:5, cf Hebrews 2:7); for men ( Psalm 82:6); for judges ( Exodus 21:6).
So when we come to John 10:34-36, Jesus is being accused of blasphemy, "thou, being a man, makest thyself God", since Jesus had said to them, "I and my Father are one" & in previous verses. Jesus then goes on to explain that the 'Elohim' of Psalm 82:6, which corresponds to the 'theos' of John 10:34, should actually not be a problem to them as we're all 'gods' in this general meaning of the word, 'Elohim' - we are NOT part of the Deity & NEVER will be, nor of the angelic realm, but certainly of men, rulers & judges (as those so appointed).
The Lord then continues His discourse with the Jews, questioning them, 'that if He is sanctified & sent by God, doing the Works of God, why shouldn't His claim to be the Son of God bother them?' Since we all come under the general word 'theos', if One coming, does the Works of God & brings the Word of God, should He not be rightfully (& more correctly) be called the Son of God? Is Jesus side-stepping the revelation of His actual position as God in the flesh? I see Jesus answering the Jews according to the charge they were laying against Him, that His claim 'making Himself God', was no different to any other claim to it by others. But if their eyes would one day be opened, they would realize that before them was no generic 'Elohim/Theos', but Theos Himself. They were far from reaching that position of understanding, not even understanding Psalm 82:6 & meaning of Elohim.
I pray over this situation Lord. We are still all human and there's clearly some very hurt feelings on both sides. I pray that you would miraculously help each of them to somehow humble theirselves in (Your) love Father. That the best possible outcome would spring forth and heal all of their hurts/hearts and unite them in love and forgiveness once again. You can do exceedingly abundantly above all that we think or ask! Let there be a willingness.
For the past 5-6 years he has managed to turn our daughter away from me. I haven't talked to her on the phone in years, if I ever wanted to ask to see my grandchildren I would text her. She would always text to say that I have them ready to pick up when they came to pick them up, not getting out to visit.
She never started a conversation even by text, it was always me. We are invited to go to birthday parties at their home, they do not speak to us or me when I am by myself, they only show up at our home for Thanksgiving and Christmas. Now they are refusing to let us see our grandchildren since July. I have tried to meet with my daughter to talk with her to talk about whatever ill feelings she has towards me, but she will only talk to me with her husband there. I won't talk to her with him around. He once hollared at me so loud that his veins on his neck were bulging. He has never liked our family. Whenever they use to come over more he wouldn't stay around the family and talk, he would go watch tv by himself. Yet he is totally involved when he is at his family's events. He has lied to my face. I have expressed my feelings about all of this to my daughter.
I don't understand how you can preach the word of God and act like this. I have tried to tell her that Christians don't act like this. And I did tell her that God will seek His revenge if they don't stop acting this way, maybe take their children from them. She didn't like this, but that is my understanding of God's word.
My heart is broken and I don't know what to do.
His church is very small, so there is no one there to talk to about all this.
I take it to believe "yea", may not be him rejoicing but even that, has scripture backing Philippians 4:4-9, James 1:2-4, 1 John 4:18,
even if we walk in/near death we should not fear because GOD promises to be with us (that trust in HIM) Deuteronomy 31:8, Hebrews 13:5-6, John 14:16-21, Psalm 139:1-24, Psalms 37:40,
The rod; Proverbs 13:24, Job 21:9, Proverbs 29:15, Lamentations 3:1, many times references discipline, correction: Proverbs 22:15, Proverbs 23:14, Proverbs 3:12, Hebrews 12:4-8-11, Staff: Hebrews 11:21, Zechariah 8:4, Exodus 21:19, Numbers 22:27, 2 Samuel 3:29, Judges 6:21
Hopefully these scriptures help you with the HOLY Spirit to understand deeper. John 14:26, James 1:5
The referenced scripture regards the piercing of the ear of a Hebrew slave that has decided to remain with their master after serving 6 years of service.
Additional scripture:
Exodus 21:1-6
1Now these are the judgments which thou shalt set before them. 2If thou buy an Hebrew servant, six years he shall serve: and in the seventh he shall go out free for nothing. 3If he came in by himself, he shall go out by himself: if he were married, then his wife shall go out with him. 4If his master have given him a wife, and she have born him sons or daughters; the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out by himself. 5And if the servant shall plainly say, I love my master, my wife, and my children; I will not go out free: 6Then his master shall bring him unto the judges; he shall also bring him to the door, or unto the door post; and his master shall bore his ear through with an aul; and he shall serve him for ever.
They lived a very different lifestyle than we do today - thank God!
Servitude is an arguable aspect when you consider the dependency of a job and the financial burden placed when its lost. This is not the same thing. When you remove that financial burden, that occupation is now a choice. There is no contractual requirement.
Don't forget, women are servants forever. In addition, you can purchase a woman from the father or guardian and force them to be your wife. The crazy part is, this still exists today in other cultures. They are not forced, but if declining means you are disowned and put on the street and a dishonor to your family... its a more difficult situation as it includes the financial burden as above, but it also includes an emotional component of losing communication to your family which cant be easily remedied.
The "great viewpoints" in this chapter was that it did provide more rights than before. If no one told them that they couldn't own a male slave for 10 years, they would have... Granted, that notion was lost at some point until slavery was abolished.
Hi Richard, I wonder whether you're referring to Exodus 4:10,11. These verses do seem to imply that God specifically creates some (in the womb) to have defective organs or other impediments. He is after all the Creator of all people & things & so has the right to do as He pleases. However, the question: why would God then create a new life with such physical or mental problems? Is it simply sufficient to say that 'He has every right to do so?"
Apart from the above, I see two other aspects to this dilemma: we are all born in corrupt sinful flesh. Even though an embryo cannot be classed as one having committed any sin, its very state, being formed out of the seed of sinful man & woman, already consigns it to an existence (whether in the womb or outside), into a sinful state. And secondly, the Ways & Plans of God are unknown to us. We don't know how God uses such people so afflicted in various ways; whether to glorify Him, to lead them to Himself, or to touch other lives through their infirmity. We usually see the suffering of the one afflicted & ask 'why has God allowed this to happen'?, yet we remain ignorant to the Purposes of God in doing so & for the one afflicted to still return praises to Him in spite of it all.
Here in Exodus chapter 4, we see Moses with a speech impediment; in John 9:1-3 (a man born blind); Mark 7:31-34 (deaf man & with a speech impediment); Acts 3:1-3 (lame man) are a few examples. Then we have babies born with disabilities from no fault of the parents, or maybe because of something ingested by the mother (e.g. Thalidomide when taken during pregnancy for anxiety & morning sickness). All these are the results from what we are as humans or what God has allowed for His Own reasons. What is more important is how we accept our lot in life, how we can be useful to others in some way, & whether through it we are reminded of our own weaknesses & sins & therefore run to the Saviour for spiritual healing & hope, & strength to live through each day.
Hi Cary, at the personal response level, you're quite correct in saying that repaying evil for evil doesn't make one any better than the perpetrator. However, we also need to study the Scripture & context.
Jesus, in Matthew 5:38,39, was referring to the Old Testament commandments that God gave ( Exodus 21:24, Leviticus 24:20, Deuteronomy 19:21). These directions were given for the proper judicial outcomes when God's Laws were disobeyed. So if it was found (by confession, by clear evidence or by witnesses) that a murder had taken place, then it was the proper judgement to mete out similar punishment as the crime. And this applied to a whole variety of offences, but such judgement was in the domain of the judges.
What was happening amongst the Jews in Jesus' day, was that those Scriptures were being applied to personal vengeance & retribution. The classic case is found in John 8:3-11, with the woman being accused of adultery to which the law required death. We see three things here: it was the religious leaders that demanded & would oversee the stoning rather than her going through an official judicial process (The Jewish Sanhedrin or the Roman Govt, depending on the crime). The person who should have cast the first stone (a large stone to the head to kill or bring to near death the criminal, & then others with smaller stones casting them at the lifeless body) failed to come forward. Jesus Word brought conviction: "He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her." Fortunately for the woman, the leaders & the people realized that they were sinners, as she was, & were not entitled to administer punishment. And since none accused her, the matter was dropped & didn't make it to the judiciary.
So the "eye for an eye" rule was not to be carried out by the people filled with anger, set upon vengeance, but from a legally constituted system (though they too could have erred in judgement). Likewise, we too, cannot repay evil with evil rather with good.
Yes I'm like you most when my first reaction to this chapter was that God condones slavery? But if I think of it as a Boss (Master) and employee (servants), it is more acceptable. Think about it, there was no capitalism back them. No jobs like we have today. What would people do back then for work?
Great viewpoints that others had where it kept society in check minimizing crime. Eye for an eye, etc.
Bible doesn't condone slavery. Just because it doesn't address it specifically doesn't mean God allows it. It would be a logical fallacy to make such an assumption. The Bible doesn't specifically say that taking illegal drugs is a sin, like meth, cocaine, heroin, weed. Does that mean it condones it or is ok? No. It instead says your body is a holy temple. The Bible also doesn't say lying is wrong or a sin. Does that mean it's ok to lie? No. It says other places to not bear false witness. Lying is a sin. Colossians 3:9, for example. Watching pornography is obviously a sin, but the Bible doesn't say that specifically is a sin. It instead says all lust is sin. But Jesus took it a step further and said if you even look at a woman in the wrong way you're guilty of the sin. There are many other sins like this that aren't directly addressed, but is clear that it's a sin when looking at the context of all the verses. In many cases the Bible is even more restrictive than some assume.
So, if someone is enslaved and held captive beyond their will, it's obvious it's a sin, because of the mountain of verses showing context, like love your neighbor as yourself, and don't seek vengance- turn the other cheek. Matthew 5:43-48. It even takes it a step further and says to be kind to your enemy, pray for them, help others, and give to those who ask. Luke 6:30-36. There are other indications from the Bible that slavery is a sin as well. The mosaic law of the Israelites was to put someone to death for attempting to trade slaves: Exodus 21:16. In 1 Timothy 1:8-10 it lists 'menstealers' (slave-traders) along with other sins.
Romans 13:7-10. The Bible summarizes the commands as not every sin will be perfectly or specifically addressed, but just love one another. It says love is the fulfilling of the law.
I already explained how slavery is different than servitude common in Bible.
Given the mountain of scripture evidence, it would seem dishonest to claim the Bible says slavery is ok.
I can't say for sure about slaves in the O.T. wearing any form of earring; but the Bible does speak about slaves, who were normally freed from their bond after six years, but who opted to stay on serving their master. Those slaves were officially confirmed as such & their ear was pierced marking them as slaves to their master forever. See Exodus 21:1-6.
Andreas, it was God indeed who gave these rules. The list begins in Exodus chapter 20 verse 1. If you find anything mentioned there troubling, we must remember that God gave these laws to not only deal with any sin that might come to His people, but also as a testimony to the nations around, who had no such laws from God.
Unfortunately, the laws in today's society bear little resemblance to those original laws given to Israel, though they are based on Judaeo-Christian laws, where law makers now generally go according to societal expectations, treatment of criminals as equal to law-abiding citizens, or even in fear of passing a sentence that may be erroneous. Some Christians readily accept such laws as good, others know that one day we will all have to stand before our Great Judge, even the judges of this earth will stand before Him, & give an answer to God about our lives & to those whom we have charge over.
The Bible does not specifically mention the word abortion. However, if we look at Exodus 21:22-25, it looks to me that God's view is that if you kill an unborn baby, the penalty is death.
A baby in a mothers womb is a living being. Aborting that baby is considered murder. It baffles me that people who commit murder, in many cases, they receive the death penalty. But what about murdering an unborn child?
This topic should touch the heart strings of every believer. Again, the closest thing I see that would give God's view on abortion (other than you shall not murder) in Exodus 20:13, would be Exodus 21:22-25.
Other verses to consider are: Deuteronomy 5:17, Matthew 5:21, Leviticus 24:17, Mark 10:19, Leviticus 24:21.
Elohim then, is the general name for God and is used in the context of God as Creator. The Name emphasizes that God is distant and powerful. It is used to describe God as the awesome and majestic Creator.
However, when God's Name is given as 'Yahweh' (the LORD), this is His personal Name and is used in the context of God having a relationship with His people. When God goes about creating humanity ( Genesis 2:7 ff; cf with Genesis 1:27, spoken of in a more general way), it is Yahweh who does this act. When the Lord is personally involved with His people, Yahweh is the proper way to designate Him.
When we see God's Name expressed differently (as well as several other names of God that reflect God's Person & Work), we can understand that the author of the Book, by the inspiration of God's Spirit, has chosen to name the God of Heaven (Elohim) and/or the God Who is the unchangeable & eternal One (Yahweh). Either way, it leaves us no doubt Who God is that the Bible speaks of & when 'elohim' is used in its other applications, we should understand those meanings as well & not confuse them with the True God.
As far as your second question, do you mean that as it is written, God "breathed into his (Adam's) nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul" ( Genesis 2:7) but it is not written the same about animals, therefore where did they get the ability to breathe ( Genesis 1:20-25)? I suppose, the same could be said about the description of man & woman's creation in that chapter ( Genesis 1:26,27), that here also it hasn't been written that they received breath. So, I would say that it is understood that all living creatures did begin to breathe (whether sea, land or air animals), even as a greater description of man's creation is given in chapter 2 of him getting the 'Breath of God'.
Jeremiah 34:8-22, = Jeremiah 39:10,
Malachi 3:5,
Matthew 25:31-46,
There are many more scriptures I believe that also will show, GOD's love to humanity & advocated against slavery
Hopefully these are helpful
Fierce opposition may be something in this country that we are not normally accustomed to but one has to ask why in light of 2 Timothy 3:12-17; John 15:18-21; 2 Corinthians 11:26 etc.
Perhaps I made this statement earlier in the Psalms discussion; but we need to distinguish between unconditional love and the fact that "enemies" still exist. Romans 5:10 and apparently 29 other verses show that indeed we all are enemies of God prior to our conversion; hence all unregenerate remain in that state.
There is something to be said for the O.T. times when the mindset was more "an eye for an eye"( Exodus 21:24). In terms of today; Christ demonstrated no personal condemnation for a particular individual; but He certainly spent chapters excoriating the Pharisees and others which caused multiple attempts at His life along the constant persecution.
Again as I stated in other Psalms regarding David's multiple hiding periods from Saul he showed respect for him by preserving his life multiple times when he could have ended it; and also he mourned over his death when the Lord finally made Saul reap what he sowed. When someone tries to kill you 21 times as Saul was said to do (not to mention other enemies of his); then we can understand a desire to see justice. Christ alluded to judgment with unbelief among the places that had seen mighty works such as Matthew 11:21 (the "woe to you" term was also used with the Pharisees).
Individual judgment to come or the fate of nations is not something we should gloss over. We as watchmen are responsible to sound the alarm ( Isaiah 52:8 and other verses in Jeremiah; etc). In evangelism warning of a national fate seems to be generally disregarded as opposed to warning individuals as to the wrath to come. I can't see studying how Christ preached that it can be ignored. We can study scripture and history to see how Isaiah and Jeremiah for instance were martyred for such messages.
Let us preach truth in love.
Look a Jeremiah 34:14-20, Exodus 21:16,
1. Slavery was normal amongst the Hebrews because some people needed to survive because of their circumstances. Slaves could be taken from their own people or from outsiders. Hebrews could become slaves because of committing crime ( Exodus 22:3); having a debt they couldn't pay ( Leviticus 25:39,40), but treated as a hired servant; or a father's right to sell their children to pay off money borrowed for taxes ( Nehemiah 5:4,5). Foreigners could become slaves: either they were prisoners of war or purchased from their owners ( Leviticus 25:44,45).
2. Slavery was fine because God had permitted it to happen ( Exodus 21:1-11), but under strict conditions (as shown in Leviticus chap 25). To note, that Hebrew slaves were to be treated kindly as one would a hired servant & not a slave ( Leviticus 25:39-43). What we know as slavery today (whether from the past or even happening now in some parts of the world), is both wrong & cruel, when they are treated like animals. So slavery then amongst the Hebrews, could be better understood as bondservants, as 'slavery' gives us a wrong connotation.
3. The Hebrew word for slave or bondservant is 'ebed'. So, the meaning is the same, but how they were treated was important. In the NT, we can take 1 Corinthians 7:21,22 as an example. The word 'servant' is used thrice in these verses: as a servant to man & as a servant to the Lord. In both instances, the Greek word is 'doulos', where both slave, servant, bondservant can be used. This denotes the dedicated duty to service rather than bonded into agonizing slavery.
4. As mentioned, 'slavery' has an evil connotation today & could never be a good thing when practised by ungodly men. But it can be a state of happy servitude where kindness & freedom is given.
This chapter starts out "Now these are the judgments which you shall set before them.." and goes on to list many scenarios where a judgment from a judge or magistrate may need to make decisions for the parties involved. These judgments were for the Israelites in that time period as they were being grown into a nation. It seems that God was setting down a civil judicial system concerning matters that would emerge or had emerged among the people. This chapter makes me think of when Moses tried to adjudicate matters among the people on his own and Jethro suggested that Moses set up adjudicators from the tribes to settle most matters, leaving Moses to attend to meeting with the LORD and leading the people as a whole.
God knew ahead of time that there would be a need for such judgments concerning the civil affairs of these chosen people. He must have wanted to establish His way of settling matters, disputes, and offences among the people before they encountered people from the surrounding areas and began to adopt these "foreigner's" civil laws. Very likely that these foreign tribes had judgments that were unjust and inhumane. God is interjecting a better way of civil jurisprudence for the Israelites to help preserve justice and order in these people and to markedly distinguish His chosen nation from those the Israelites will encounter and share territory with.
Although to some of us in our time would read these judgments and scratch our heads as to whether they are truly just or not. But for me, I will not question God's holy justice. I will just accept that He instructed the Israelites according to His good an perfect will. So, perhaps the lesson for me is not to necessarily understand these judgments or the scenarios that prompt the judgments or the culture of these days. Rather, the lesson to me is, do I truly believe these are God's Words and are therefore true and right and will I defend God's right to judge as He pleases despite these words.
Some assume the Bible condones it because it has verses addressing slaves to be respectful of others. Colossians 4:1. This applies to everyone of course.
There is another angle on this: in the Bible days some voluntarily became "slaves" in order to pay off debt. Voluntarily doing work is closer to a job than slavery in my opinion, but I believe some call it that. If its 100% against someone's will then I think its slavery, but if someone voluntarily chooses something even if they perceive to not have many choices, then it it's a job. Some worked years for men in order to gain rights to marry a man's daughter, for instance.
This verse suggests that is someone is caught trafficking slaves to put them to death: Exodus 21:16. Other Bible verses like love your neighbor as yourself refute the myth that the Bible supports slavery. The message of Christianity is freedom, not slavery. The truth is true, regardless of what the evil world claims or thinks. Some will prefer the lie, because its more attractive to them. Lots of myths would be cleared up if people just read through the Bible.
Rod: Exodus 4:17,
Job 9:34, Job 21:9, Psalms 2:9, Psalms 89:32, Psalms 125:3, Proverbs 10:13, Proverbs 13:24, Proverbs 22:15, Proverbs 23:13,14, Proverbs 26:3,
Proverbs 29:15, Isaiah 9:4, Isaiah 10:5, Isaiah 10:15, Isaiah 10:26, Isaiah 11:1,4, Jeremiah 10:16, Revelation 12:25,
Staff: Genesis 32:10, Genesis 38:18, Exodus 12:17, Exodus 21:19, Leviticus 26:26, Numbers 13:23, Judges 6:21, 2Samuel 3:29, 2Samuel 23:7,21, 2Kings 4:29,31, 2Kings 18:21, Isaiah 3:1, Isaiah 14:5, Isaiah 28:27,
Hopefully these are helpful
KJV definition of child: Exodus 21:22, starts in womb, 1Kings 3:7-10, Matthew 2:1, Psalms 131:2, Ecclesiastes 4:13, Hosea 11:1,
A child has to trust for every provision
Hopefully these are helpful
In the references you gave, we can understand & know the meaning of the various names given. In Genesis chapter 1, the author refers to God as 'God' (or, Elohim). Elohim, is a general name for the True God, as it can also be used to depict other gods (e.g. Genesis 31:30; Exodus 12:12), of angels ( Psalm 8:5), of men ( Psalm 82:6), of judges/rulers ( Exodus 21:6)). So, in relation to God's creative Work, the Name Elohim was given here. And of course, Elohim is also used of the True God elsewhere in the Bible, where creating is not signified (e.g. Genesis 35:7).
But in Genesis chapter 2 we see the use of the word, LORD (or, Yahweh), & this signifies a special revelation & a special relationship to Israel: 'Yahweh' means the active, self-existent One (as in Exodus 3:14, where the word is connected to the verb, 'to be') & also being Israel's Redeemer ( Exodus 6:6). So the use of the word, LORD, signifies this True God (Elohim) is not distant (as seen by His other Works), but is now revealed in a most personal way to Israel as LORD (Yahweh); hence combining the two words to read, LORD God. And from Genesis 2:2 onwards, this Name is used to signify the commencement of a personal interaction with His creation.
And when we read the word, 'Lord', this means 'master, lord, sovereign' (as in Genesis 15:2). Hence we can have a variety of combinations: God, LORD God, Lord God, each one depicting what the author has received from God that has to be revealed to the reader (chiefly, Israel in the OT references). And of interest, this God Who is a personal God, is also experienced in many ways in that relationship. Hence, we get compound Names of Yahweh, such Yahweh-Jireh (the God Who will see to it; or provides); Yahweh-Shalom (the God Who gives peace); & many other compound Names.
Psalm 82:6, the verse which Jesus quotes to the Jewish leaders, refers to "gods" as 'Elohim'. This is a word that has several meanings, as it applies to both the true God & to other applications of that word. Elohim is a generic word, used for God ( Genesis 1:1); for pagan gods ( Genesis 31:30, Exodus 12:12); for angels ( Psalm 8:5, cf Hebrews 2:7); for men ( Psalm 82:6); for judges ( Exodus 21:6).
So when we come to John 10:34-36, Jesus is being accused of blasphemy, "thou, being a man, makest thyself God", since Jesus had said to them, "I and my Father are one" & in previous verses. Jesus then goes on to explain that the 'Elohim' of Psalm 82:6, which corresponds to the 'theos' of John 10:34, should actually not be a problem to them as we're all 'gods' in this general meaning of the word, 'Elohim' - we are NOT part of the Deity & NEVER will be, nor of the angelic realm, but certainly of men, rulers & judges (as those so appointed).
The Lord then continues His discourse with the Jews, questioning them, 'that if He is sanctified & sent by God, doing the Works of God, why shouldn't His claim to be the Son of God bother them?' Since we all come under the general word 'theos', if One coming, does the Works of God & brings the Word of God, should He not be rightfully (& more correctly) be called the Son of God? Is Jesus side-stepping the revelation of His actual position as God in the flesh? I see Jesus answering the Jews according to the charge they were laying against Him, that His claim 'making Himself God', was no different to any other claim to it by others. But if their eyes would one day be opened, they would realize that before them was no generic 'Elohim/Theos', but Theos Himself. They were far from reaching that position of understanding, not even understanding Psalm 82:6 & meaning of Elohim.
For the past 5-6 years he has managed to turn our daughter away from me. I haven't talked to her on the phone in years, if I ever wanted to ask to see my grandchildren I would text her. She would always text to say that I have them ready to pick up when they came to pick them up, not getting out to visit.
She never started a conversation even by text, it was always me. We are invited to go to birthday parties at their home, they do not speak to us or me when I am by myself, they only show up at our home for Thanksgiving and Christmas. Now they are refusing to let us see our grandchildren since July. I have tried to meet with my daughter to talk with her to talk about whatever ill feelings she has towards me, but she will only talk to me with her husband there. I won't talk to her with him around. He once hollared at me so loud that his veins on his neck were bulging. He has never liked our family. Whenever they use to come over more he wouldn't stay around the family and talk, he would go watch tv by himself. Yet he is totally involved when he is at his family's events. He has lied to my face. I have expressed my feelings about all of this to my daughter.
I don't understand how you can preach the word of God and act like this. I have tried to tell her that Christians don't act like this. And I did tell her that God will seek His revenge if they don't stop acting this way, maybe take their children from them. She didn't like this, but that is my understanding of God's word.
My heart is broken and I don't know what to do.
His church is very small, so there is no one there to talk to about all this.
even if we walk in/near death we should not fear because GOD promises to be with us (that trust in HIM) Deuteronomy 31:8, Hebrews 13:5-6, John 14:16-21, Psalm 139:1-24, Psalms 37:40,
The rod; Proverbs 13:24, Job 21:9, Proverbs 29:15, Lamentations 3:1, many times references discipline, correction: Proverbs 22:15, Proverbs 23:14, Proverbs 3:12, Hebrews 12:4-8-11, Staff: Hebrews 11:21, Zechariah 8:4, Exodus 21:19, Numbers 22:27, 2 Samuel 3:29, Judges 6:21
Hopefully these scriptures help you with the HOLY Spirit to understand deeper. John 14:26, James 1:5
The referenced scripture regards the piercing of the ear of a Hebrew slave that has decided to remain with their master after serving 6 years of service.
Additional scripture:
Exodus 21:1-6
1Now these are the judgments which thou shalt set before them. 2If thou buy an Hebrew servant, six years he shall serve: and in the seventh he shall go out free for nothing. 3If he came in by himself, he shall go out by himself: if he were married, then his wife shall go out with him. 4If his master have given him a wife, and she have born him sons or daughters; the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out by himself. 5And if the servant shall plainly say, I love my master, my wife, and my children; I will not go out free: 6Then his master shall bring him unto the judges; he shall also bring him to the door, or unto the door post; and his master shall bore his ear through with an aul; and he shall serve him for ever.
They lived a very different lifestyle than we do today - thank God!
God Bless
Don't forget, women are servants forever. In addition, you can purchase a woman from the father or guardian and force them to be your wife. The crazy part is, this still exists today in other cultures. They are not forced, but if declining means you are disowned and put on the street and a dishonor to your family... its a more difficult situation as it includes the financial burden as above, but it also includes an emotional component of losing communication to your family which cant be easily remedied.
The "great viewpoints" in this chapter was that it did provide more rights than before. If no one told them that they couldn't own a male slave for 10 years, they would have... Granted, that notion was lost at some point until slavery was abolished.
Apart from the above, I see two other aspects to this dilemma: we are all born in corrupt sinful flesh. Even though an embryo cannot be classed as one having committed any sin, its very state, being formed out of the seed of sinful man & woman, already consigns it to an existence (whether in the womb or outside), into a sinful state. And secondly, the Ways & Plans of God are unknown to us. We don't know how God uses such people so afflicted in various ways; whether to glorify Him, to lead them to Himself, or to touch other lives through their infirmity. We usually see the suffering of the one afflicted & ask 'why has God allowed this to happen'?, yet we remain ignorant to the Purposes of God in doing so & for the one afflicted to still return praises to Him in spite of it all.
Here in Exodus chapter 4, we see Moses with a speech impediment; in John 9:1-3 (a man born blind); Mark 7:31-34 (deaf man & with a speech impediment); Acts 3:1-3 (lame man) are a few examples. Then we have babies born with disabilities from no fault of the parents, or maybe because of something ingested by the mother (e.g. Thalidomide when taken during pregnancy for anxiety & morning sickness). All these are the results from what we are as humans or what God has allowed for His Own reasons. What is more important is how we accept our lot in life, how we can be useful to others in some way, & whether through it we are reminded of our own weaknesses & sins & therefore run to the Saviour for spiritual healing & hope, & strength to live through each day.
Jesus, in Matthew 5:38,39, was referring to the Old Testament commandments that God gave ( Exodus 21:24, Leviticus 24:20, Deuteronomy 19:21). These directions were given for the proper judicial outcomes when God's Laws were disobeyed. So if it was found (by confession, by clear evidence or by witnesses) that a murder had taken place, then it was the proper judgement to mete out similar punishment as the crime. And this applied to a whole variety of offences, but such judgement was in the domain of the judges.
What was happening amongst the Jews in Jesus' day, was that those Scriptures were being applied to personal vengeance & retribution. The classic case is found in John 8:3-11, with the woman being accused of adultery to which the law required death. We see three things here: it was the religious leaders that demanded & would oversee the stoning rather than her going through an official judicial process (The Jewish Sanhedrin or the Roman Govt, depending on the crime). The person who should have cast the first stone (a large stone to the head to kill or bring to near death the criminal, & then others with smaller stones casting them at the lifeless body) failed to come forward. Jesus Word brought conviction: "He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her." Fortunately for the woman, the leaders & the people realized that they were sinners, as she was, & were not entitled to administer punishment. And since none accused her, the matter was dropped & didn't make it to the judiciary.
So the "eye for an eye" rule was not to be carried out by the people filled with anger, set upon vengeance, but from a legally constituted system (though they too could have erred in judgement). Likewise, we too, cannot repay evil with evil rather with good.
I have had many Bibles, different translations .
The King James Version is the ONLY Bible I read.
Thank you .
God Bless
Bruce.
Great viewpoints that others had where it kept society in check minimizing crime. Eye for an eye, etc.
So, if someone is enslaved and held captive beyond their will, it's obvious it's a sin, because of the mountain of verses showing context, like love your neighbor as yourself, and don't seek vengance- turn the other cheek. Matthew 5:43-48. It even takes it a step further and says to be kind to your enemy, pray for them, help others, and give to those who ask. Luke 6:30-36. There are other indications from the Bible that slavery is a sin as well. The mosaic law of the Israelites was to put someone to death for attempting to trade slaves: Exodus 21:16. In 1 Timothy 1:8-10 it lists 'menstealers' (slave-traders) along with other sins.
Romans 13:7-10. The Bible summarizes the commands as not every sin will be perfectly or specifically addressed, but just love one another. It says love is the fulfilling of the law.
I already explained how slavery is different than servitude common in Bible.
Given the mountain of scripture evidence, it would seem dishonest to claim the Bible says slavery is ok.
Unfortunately, the laws in today's society bear little resemblance to those original laws given to Israel, though they are based on Judaeo-Christian laws, where law makers now generally go according to societal expectations, treatment of criminals as equal to law-abiding citizens, or even in fear of passing a sentence that may be erroneous. Some Christians readily accept such laws as good, others know that one day we will all have to stand before our Great Judge, even the judges of this earth will stand before Him, & give an answer to God about our lives & to those whom we have charge over.